On 01/10/2007 3:50 AM, Daniel Polhamus wrote:> Hello R Gurus,
>
> This is a simple enough question, but I am curious as to whether
there's an answer... Can R generate a random variable uniformly distributed
on -Inf to Inf? Philosophically this doesn't seem possible, and if not, as
I imagine so, is there some sort of generally accepted factor I should be
multiplying by a Unif(-1,1) rv to sample from the real line?
There's no distribution that's uniform on the real line, but there are a
lot of ways to sample non-uniformly from it.
A common approximation (e.g. to simulate a non-informative prior in
Bayesian work) is to use a normal distribution with a large variance.
AFAIK there isn't any agreement on what "large" should be, because
it
depends so much on context.
Duncan Murdoch
> Thanks,
> Dan Polhamus
>
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>
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