On 01/10/2007 3:50 AM, Daniel Polhamus wrote:> Hello R Gurus,
>  
> This is a simple enough question, but I am curious as to whether
there's an answer...  Can R generate a random variable uniformly distributed
on -Inf to Inf?  Philosophically this doesn't seem possible, and if not, as
I imagine so, is there some sort of generally accepted factor I should be
multiplying by a Unif(-1,1) rv to sample from the real line?
There's no distribution that's uniform on the real line, but there are a
lot of ways to sample non-uniformly from it.
A common approximation (e.g. to simulate a non-informative prior in 
Bayesian work) is to use a normal distribution with a large variance.
AFAIK there isn't any agreement on what "large" should be, because
it
depends so much on context.
Duncan Murdoch
> Thanks,
> Dan Polhamus
> 
> 	[[alternative HTML version deleted]]
> 
> ______________________________________________
> R-help at r-project.org mailing list
> https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help
> PLEASE do read the posting guide
http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html
> and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.