George Milunovich
2013-Jul-18 18:14 UTC
[R] Difference between arima(1, 1, 1) of y and arima(1, 0, 1) of diff(y)
Dear all, When I run an arima(1,1,1) on an I(1) variable, y, I get different estimates to when I first difference the variable myself, e.g y2<-diff(y), and then run arima(1,0,1) on y2. Shouldn't these two approaches give the same output? Any help will be much appreciated. george
Mark Leeds
2013-Jul-18 18:51 UTC
[R] Difference between arima(1, 1, 1) of y and arima(1, 0, 1) of diff(y)
Hi George: Assuming it's still relevant, the link below will explain why. http://www.stat.pitt.edu/stoffer/tsa2/Rissues.htm On Thu, Jul 18, 2013 at 2:14 PM, George Milunovich < george.milunovich@mq.edu.au> wrote:> Dear all, > When I run an arima(1,1,1) on an I(1) variable, y, I get different > estimates to when I first difference the variable myself, e.g y2<-diff(y), > and then run arima(1,0,1) on y2. Shouldn't these two approaches give the > same output? > Any help will be much appreciated. > george > > ______________________________________________ > R-help@r-project.org mailing list > https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help > PLEASE do read the posting guide > http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html > and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code. >[[alternative HTML version deleted]]