Hi R-users, I have this code below for tweedie inverse, but I don?t understand why it doesn?t give zero for some of r1 values? ? r1 <- runif(31,0,1) p0 <- 0.72 ; p <- 1.63; mu <- 1.48; phi <- 9.61 ? tweedie.inv <- function(rand,p0,p,mu,phi) {? y <- rand ?? ind <- rand < p0 ?? y[ind] <- 0 ?? y[!ind] <- qtweedie((rand[!ind]-p0)/(1-p0),p,mu,phi) ?? cbind (prob=rand,rain.amt=y) } ? tweedie.inv(r1,p0,p,mu,phi) ? Thank you in advance for your attention. ____________________________________________________________________________________ You rock. That's why Blockbuster's offering you one month of Blockbuster Total Access, No Cost. http://tc.deals.yahoo.com/tc/blockbuster/text5.com