I've got a sample set of variables x1,...xn and a factor f that classifies each sample to belong to either group 0 or 1. If I build a model with m1<-glm(f~. , family=binomial(link="logit"),data=frame); pv<-as.vector(predict(m1)) prob<-plogis(pv) does then "prob" predict the probability of a sample to belong to group 1? Is this equivalent to logistic discrimination analysis? M. Pronath -.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.-.- r-help mailing list -- Read http://www.ci.tuwien.ac.at/~hornik/R/R-FAQ.html Send "info", "help", or "[un]subscribe" (in the "body", not the subject !) To: r-help-request at stat.math.ethz.ch _._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._._