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2005 Feb 03
1
If this is should be posted elsewhere, please advise
Hi, I am puzzled by the relationship between the p-values asociated with the coefficients of a univariate logistic regression involving categorical variables and the p-value I get from Fisher's exact test of the associated 2 x 2 contingency table. (1) The 2-sided p-value for the table is ~ 0.0015, whereas the p-value for the independent is 0.101 and the p-value for the intercept is