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xbdev
2005 Oct 20
3
different F test in drop1 and anova
Hi,
I was wondering why anova() and drop1() give different tail
probabilities for F tests.
I guess overdispersion is calculated differently in the following
example, but why?
Thanks for any advice,
Tom
For example:
> x<-c(2,3,4,5,6)
> y<-c(0,1,0,0,1)
> b1<-glm(y~x,binomial)
> b2<-glm(y~1,binomial)
> drop1(b1,test="F")
Single term deletions
Model:
y ~