search for: cauchy_distribution

Folks, I wonder if anything could be said about the distribution of a random variate x, where x = N(0,1)/N(0,1) Obviously x is pathological because it could be 0/0. If we exclude this point, so the set is {x/(0/0)}, does x have a well defined distribution? or does it exist a distribution that approximates x. (The case could be generalized of course to N(mu1, sigma1)/N(mu2, sigma2) and one